Does the demographic transition theory describe the fall of fertility rates in all cultures and societies? For example, I understand that Iran has had the fastest fertility rate decline of any developing nation, and they achieved this decline (without Western support or consultation) because Iranian leadership decided that reducing population growth served their national interest. In other words, they brought about a decline WITHOUT a pre-existing improvement in women's rights,health care, economic opportunity etc. And now I understand that since the decline, women are gaining stature, healthcare and economic opportunity is improving etc. -- which implies there is no "first this has to happen, before this can happen". --and maybe other cultures will arrive at stable populations from a different route than Western nations. Any feedback?